Pronoun intrigue
I get caught up in details from time to time. Still haven’t worked through my Zephaniah 3:9 issue yet … but I have another question.
Let the nations be aroused
And come up to the valley of Jehoshaphat,
For there I will sit to judge
All the surrounding nations.
Various translations do interesting things with quotation marks: NASB quotes v.1-8 only; NIV v.1-8, 12-13, 17-21; NKJV v. 1-8, 9-10, 12-13, 17, 19-21; ESV v. 1-8, 17-21.
Why am I intrigued with quotations? Verse 8 ends with something like thus saith the Lord–thus v. 1-8 are referencing speech, and some versions (ie. not NKJV) would suggest Joel begins speaking himself with the absence of quotations in verse 9.
If this line of reasoning is to continue, what do you then make of NASB and ESV lack of quotations in v. 12-13…notably in v. 12 for there I will sit to judge? Who exactly is sitting and judging? I would suggest “I” still refers to God. However, is there anything to be inferred by the fact that it is now Joel speaking and not God?
Not having an actual Strong’s by my side (but only having a web version), tracking to whom/Whom this solitary pronoun belongs is a bit of a challenge. Indeed, my rather narrow focus may preclude some understanding of Joel’s (God’s) message. My Hebrew is not up to snuff either, otherwise I could simply read an untranslated version (trusting that a valid manuscript was used/manuscript pieces put together) and be done with it.
Anyone wishing to aid in this pronoun dilema would be most welcome to do so. Otherwise just add it to the ‘just another eclectic thought from her head’ pile.
